Hallo, I'm working as hardware developer into an industry. I began one year ago. I have recently received a job offer from another industry. I think to accept it. During this year I developed some cores. I'm obliged to give every source code of my cores, otherwise may I give only netlist? That industry may sell the cores I developed? Many Thanks Marco Toschi PS: Sorry for my terrible english language.
Question about the ip I developed
Started by ●May 1, 2006
Reply by ●May 1, 20062006-05-01
"Marco T." <marc@blabla.com> schrieb im Newsbeitrag news:e34c5l$ijh$1@nnrp.ngi.it...> Hallo, > I'm working as hardware developer into an industry. I began one year ago. > I have recently received a job offer from another industry. I think to > accept it. > > During this year I developed some cores. > > I'm obliged to give every source code of my cores, otherwise may I give > only netlist? > > That industry may sell the cores I developed? > > Many Thanks > Marco Toschi > > PS: Sorry for my terrible english language. >I assume your use of 'industry' means == employer, then basically ALL IP what you developled during paid work belongs to the employer and they can do whatever they want unless it was agreed differently in the your work contract. Antti
Reply by ●May 1, 20062006-05-01
"Antti Lukats" <antti@openchip.org> wrote in message news:e34i8q$q9v$1@online.de...> "Marco T." <marc@blabla.com> schrieb im Newsbeitrag > news:e34c5l$ijh$1@nnrp.ngi.it... >> Hallo, >> I'm working as hardware developer into an industry. I began one year ago. >> I have recently received a job offer from another industry. I think to >> accept it. >> >> During this year I developed some cores. >> >> I'm obliged to give every source code of my cores, otherwise may I give >> only netlist? >> >> That industry may sell the cores I developed? >> >> Many Thanks >> Marco Toschi >> >> PS: Sorry for my terrible english language. >> > I assume your use of 'industry' means == employer, then basically ALL IP > what you developled during paid work belongs to the employer and they can > do whatever they want unless it was agreed differently in the your work > contract. > > Antti >May I use the cores I developed with new job?
Reply by ●May 1, 20062006-05-01
Marco T. wrote:>> I assume your use of 'industry' means == employer, then basically ALL IP >> what you developled during paid work belongs to the employer ...^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^> May I use the cores I developed with new job?Read this again. -> You can't use something, that belongs to your employer. Read your contract. It may be defined in a different way. Ralf
Reply by ●May 1, 20062006-05-01
"Antti Lukats" <antti@openchip.org> wrote in message news:e34i8q$q9v$1@online.de...> I assume your use of 'industry' means == employer, then basically ALL IP > what you developled during paid work belongs to the employer and they can > do whatever they want unless it was agreed differently in the your work > contract. >That depends on the country. In the UK it is normal that IP normally expected through the course of your work connected with the company belongs to the company. However an idea or discovery discovered during work time but unrelated to the companies interest may belong to the employee. Similarly if the employee is inspired at bath time of an advance in his company's products then that belongs to the company. In this case if he's employed the cores written in company time for company purposes belongs to the company. He has no rights at all for use outside the company.
Reply by ●May 1, 20062006-05-01
> to the company. However an idea or discovery discovered during work time > but unrelated to the companies interest may belong to the employee.What if the employee uses company resources (say a company workstation) to develop/explore the unrelated idea? Wouldn't that give the company grounds for a claim?
Reply by ●May 1, 20062006-05-01
"int19h" <tirath@replacethispartwithmynickname.com> wrote in message news:4455fd7b@dnews.tpgi.com.au...>> to the company. However an idea or discovery discovered during work time >> but unrelated to the companies interest may belong to the employee. > > What if the employee uses company resources (say a company workstation) to > develop/explore the unrelated idea? Wouldn't that give the company grounds > for a claim? >In the UK it would be grounds for dismissal in the same basis any unauthorised use of equipment for non-work purposes can get you dismissed. Essentially theft of resources. They could claim loss which might add up to a pound or two! In other words - no. It does however depend on general working practices within the company such as is the occasional use of phones allowed for private use etc. Whether lawful would include contractual and normal practice within the company. If a clause in your contract is openly abused, known and accepted by management they cannot, on an ad-hoc basis, enforce it.
Reply by ●May 1, 20062006-05-01
Marco, this depends on the laws in your country. in the US, if the work is "work for hire" (typical employer / employee relationship) then the copyright is owned by the employer. iow, you can't copy it w/o their permission (you can't use it at your new employer). if you are an independent contractor, though, then you likely reatin the copyright unless you gave it away in the contract (which most companies will require in your case). the laws vary between countries, so do some research about your country specifics. good luck - and use this knowledge to get a better contract with you new employer.
Reply by ●May 2, 20062006-05-02
"Fred" <fred@nowhere.com> wrote in message news:4456098b$0$203$db0fefd9@news.zen.co.uk...> > It does however depend on general working practices within the company > such as is the occasional use of phones allowed for private use etc. > Whether lawful would include contractual and normal practice within the > company. If a clause in your contract is openly abused, known and > accepted by management they cannot, on an ad-hoc basis, enforce it. > >Hi Fred, On a related note, did you see this in the Times yesterday? http://business.timesonline.co.uk/article/0,,16849-2159286.html HMRC might start taxing people to use work computers for personal email and browsing. According to the article, the tax would appear to be based on the cost of the computer. I guess you could just give everyone an old �20 PC to use for email! Cheers, Syms.
Reply by ●May 2, 20062006-05-02
"Symon" <symon_brewer@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:4457270c$0$15789$14726298@news.sunsite.dk...> "Fred" <fred@nowhere.com> wrote in message > news:4456098b$0$203$db0fefd9@news.zen.co.uk... >> >> It does however depend on general working practices within the company >> such as is the occasional use of phones allowed for private use etc. >> Whether lawful would include contractual and normal practice within the >> company. If a clause in your contract is openly abused, known and >> accepted by management they cannot, on an ad-hoc basis, enforce it. >> >> > Hi Fred, > On a related note, did you see this in the Times yesterday? > http://business.timesonline.co.uk/article/0,,16849-2159286.html > HMRC might start taxing people to use work computers for personal email > and browsing. According to the article, the tax would appear to be based > on the cost of the computer. I guess you could just give everyone an old > �20 PC to use for email! > Cheers, Syms. >Yes I saw that and I find it amusing that the Treasury are running at odds to the DTI. In fact the DTI weren't aware until just before the last budget that the tax incentive of free home computers for employees was to stop. Also other government department were about to get schemes up and running and had to shelve them. The DTI are trying to promote computer use and the Treasury are trying to stifle it. In essence the Treasury are trying every way they can to increase revenue by the odd million or so. Good old stealth - tax by the back door. It's still laughable that HMRC overpaid Tax Credits by more than a �billion! In practice there will be a definition of "significant use" which stifle use rather bring any income to the Treasury.
